Question 1 When pricing an American security in the binomial model, which of the following best describes the main idea that you must keep in mind through the process? The path that the stock price takes through the tree makes no difference. None of the other responses. It is no different than pricing a European security. At each state, you must compare the current exercise value to the exercise value at later states where you have already concluded that exercise is a good idea. You must know what the correct exercise strategy is before starting your pricing.
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- Problem 4a: State whether the following statements are true or false. In each case, provide a brief explanation. a. In a risk averse world, the binomial model states that, other things being equal, the greater the probability of an up movement in the stock price, the lower the value of a European put option.4 With regard to the OIP, Multiple Choice the OIP has more return and less risk for all investors, regardless of home country. none of the options the composition of the optimal international portfolio is identical for all investors, regardless home country. the composition of the optimal international portfolio is identical for all investors, regardless of home country, if they hedge their risk with currency futures contractsSuppose that C is the price of a European call option to purchase a security whose present price is S.Show that if C > S then there is an opportunity for arbitrage (i.e. riskless profit). You may assume theinterest rate is r = 0 so that present value calculations are unnecessary.
- Imagine a situation where European options on some underlying stock have the following relationship. p+S > c+ K*exp(-rT). (a) Describe the arbitrage opportunities that are available with an example. (b) Now change those options to American-style options. Does the arbitrage strategy still work? Explain your answer.Which of the following statements about European option contracts is true? Question 2Answer a. Typically American options are cheaper than otherwise similar European options due to the uncertainty regarding the date of exercise. b. The price of an option can be obtained by computing the true probabilities of each state of nature, working out the expected option payoff across those states and then discounting back to the present. c. A long call position and a short put position both involve buying the underlying and so are equivalent d. One can synthesise a long forward position in the underlying by being long a call and short a putSuppose that C is the price of a European call option to purchase a security whose present price is S. Show that if C>S then there is an opportunity for arbitrage (ie. riskless profit). Assume the interest rate r=0 so present value calculations are unnecessary.
- ? Q.17 Donat Bank from Slovenia recently started trading in FX options: Senior management wants to receive reports about risks arising from those trading activities and wants from its risk management unit explanations regarding the techniques used to measure risk. Which technique(s) is (are) most appropriate in this case? A B C D Delta normal Full revaluation Both A and B None of the aboveQ: Fama and French three factor model is based on market risk premium factor and two other factors. A) What are the two other factors and B) how can they be calculated? C) What are the two factors proxy for and D) how?46 FDI often involves the establishment of new production facilities in foreign countries such as Honda's Ohio plant. ut of Select one: O True O False 47 The world beta" measures the ut of Select one: O a risk of default and bankruptey. O b risk-adjusted performance. O c.unsystematic risk. O d sensitivity of returns on a security to world market movements.
- Part I. Explain why an American call options on futures could be optimally exercised early while call options on the spot can not be optimally exercised. Assume that there is no dividend. Explain how to use call options and put options to create a synthetic short position in stock. Part II. Indicate whether each of the following two statements below is true, false or uncertain and justify your response. It is theoretically impossible for an out-of-money European call and an in-the-money European put to be trading at the same price. Both options are written on the same non-dividend paying stock. A 3-month European put option on a non-dividend-paying stock is currently selling for $3.80. The stock price is $48.0, the strike price is $51, and the risk-free interest rate is 6% per annum (continuous compounding). There is no arbitrage opportunity in this scenario.I have been working on the question below and I'm stuck on how to finish it up. I have provided what I've done so far. Is what I've done so far correct? And how do I finish up the problem? Here is the question: Suppose that C is the price of a European call option to purchase a security whose present price is S. Show that if C>S then there is an opportunity for arbitrage (i.e. risk-less profit). You may assume the interest rate is r=0 so that the present value calculations are unnecessary. My work so far: There is an opportunity for arbitrage if we can create a portfolio that initially (time t=0) generates a zero net cash flow or a cash inflow, but still produce a positive or zero cash inflow at the time of expiration. Assume we are going to short sell one call option C, and buy one stock S. Consider the cash flows at time t=0.Cash flow of selling one call option: +CCash flow of buying one stock: -STherefore, since C>S, we have an initial cash inflow of C-S>0. We will now…why should investors consider constructing global portfolios?how do currency fluctuation concern s affect that decision?