Let F denote the kth number in the Fibonacci sequence. (a) Prove that F2+1 − F²? = Fk−1Fk-2 - (b) Prove that Vn € Z such that n ≥ 0, Fên is a multiple of 3.

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Q: what expression is equivalent to  3x2−4xy+y23x2−4xy+y2?

A: I have given the answer in the next step. Hope you understand that

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