In the “complete Keynesian model”, the investment functions was I = I0 - f(i). An analyst now proposes the following investment function: I = I0 - f(i) + qY, where “q” is a parameter and Y is national income = GDP. Provide two different arguments, i.e. explanations as to why this investment function makes sense. The focus is on the new term, qY (q times Y), in the function.
In the “complete Keynesian model”, the investment functions was I = I0 - f(i). An analyst now proposes the following investment function: I = I0 - f(i) + qY, where “q” is a parameter and Y is national income = GDP. Provide two different arguments, i.e. explanations as to why this investment function makes sense. The focus is on the new term, qY (q times Y), in the function.
Chapter9: The Keynesian Model In Action
Section: Chapter Questions
Problem 4SQ
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. In the “complete Keynesian model”, the investment functions was I = I0 - f(i). An analyst now proposes the following investment function: I = I0 - f(i) + qY, where “q” is a parameter and Y is national income = GDP . Provide two different arguments, i.e. explanations as to why this investment function makes sense. The focus is on the new term, qY (q times Y), in the function.
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